Hey guys, I know that assets held until death get passed onto heirs at the market value at the time of death, and this is commonly called the step up in basis. However, does this step up in basis apply to depreciation as well?
What if a property has been fully depreciated, and it passes onto the heir at market value. Sure the heir doesn't have to pay any capital gains tax effectively if they sell it immediately, but what if they want to hold onto it and rent it out?
Can they depreciate it all over again, starting from the current market value?
What if a property has been fully depreciated, and it passes onto the heir at market value. Sure the heir doesn't have to pay any capital gains tax effectively if they sell it immediately, but what if they want to hold onto it and rent it out?
Can they depreciate it all over again, starting from the current market value?
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